The test is supposed to take 03 hours, then make 03 breaks of 05 min between hours.
If you need more than 03 hours to answer all questions, take it.
At the end – when the right answers will appear – take note of those questions you’ve got wrong.
Passing rate: more than 70%.
GOOD LUCK!
Results
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#1 Peripheral proteins are:
imbedded in the cell membrane.
are covalently bound to membrane components.
are not loosely attached to the cell membrane by electrostatic interactions.
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#2 About Integral proteins, choose the right alternative:
are not anchored to, and imbedded in, the cell membrane through hydrophobic interactions.
may span the cell membrane.
do not include ion channels, transport proteins, receptors, and guanosine 5′-triphosphate (GTP)–binding proteins (G proteins).
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#3 About lipid bilayer it is correct to affirm:
Phospholipids have a glycerol backbone, which is not the hydrophilic (water soluble) head, and two fatty acid tails, which are hydrophobic (water insoluble). The hydrophobic tails face each other and form a bilayer.
Phospholipids have a glycerol backbone, which is the hydrophilic (water soluble) head, and two fatty acid tails, which are hydrophobic (water insoluble). The hydrophobic tails face each other and form a bilayer.
Phospholipids have a glycerol backbone, which is the hydrophilic (water soluble) head, and two fatty acid tails, which are hydrophobic (water insoluble). The hydrophobic tails do not face each other and form a bilayer.
Phospholipids do not have a glycerol backbone, which is the hydrophilic (water soluble) head, and two fatty acid tails, which are hydrophobic (water insoluble). The hydrophobic tails face each other and form a bilayer.
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#4 About Intercellular connections it is correct to say:
Tight junctions (zonula occludens) are the attachments between cells (often epithelial cells).
Tight junctions (zonula occludens) are the attachments between bones junctions..
Tight junctions (zonula occludens) are the attachments between brain cells.
Tight junctions (zonula occludens) are not the attachments between cells (often epithelial cells).
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#5 Gap junctions are:
are the attachments between cells that permit intercellular communication.
are the attachments between cells that permit intercellular enervation.
do not permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells.
permit current flow and electrical coupling between brain cells.
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#6 Among the characteristics of simple diffusion, it is correct to say:
is the only form of transport that is carrier mediated.
is the only form of transport that is not carrier mediated.
is not the only form of transport that is carrier mediated.
does not occur down an electrochemical gradient (“downhill”).
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#7 Permeability is:
is the P in the equation for diffusion.
describes the ease with which a solute diffuses through a nucleus.
does not describe the ease with which a solute diffuses through a membrane.
does not depend on the characteristics of the solute and the membrane.
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#8 Factors that increase permeability:
↑ Membrane thickness decreases the diffusion distance.
↓ Membrane thickness increases the diffusion distance.
↓ radius (size) of the solute decreases the diffusion coefficient and speed of diffusion.
↑ oil/water partition coefficient of the solute increases solubility in the lipid of the nucleus.
↑ oil/water partition coefficient of the solute increases solubility in the lipid of the membrane.
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#9 About Carrier-mediated transport:
includes facilitated diffusion and primary and secondary active transport.
does not include facilitated diffusion and primary and secondary active transport.
includes facilitated diffusion and primary and primary active transport.
includes facilitated diffusion and primary and secondary passive transport.
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#10 The characteristics of carrier-mediated transport are:
Stereospecificity, saturation and competition.
Stereospecificity, saturation and plasticity.
Stereospecificity, osmolarity and competition.
Stereospecificity, osmolarity and plasticity.
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#11 Characteristics of facilitated diffusion are:
occurs up an electrochemical gradient (“uphill”), similar to simple osmose.
occurs down an electrochemical gradient (“downhill”), similar to simple osmose.
occurs up an electrochemical gradient (“uphill”), similar to simple diffusion.
occurs down an electrochemical gradient (“downhill”), similar to simple diffusion.
requires metabolic energy and therefore is passive.
is not more rapid than simple diffusion.
is not carrier mediated and therefore exhibits stereospecificity, saturation, and competition.
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#12 Characteristics of primary active transport:
does not occur against an electrochemical gradient (“uphill”).
occurs against an electrochemical gradient (“uphill”).
does not require direct input of metabolic energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (aTP) and therefore is active.
requires direct input of metabolic energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (aTP) and therefore is inactive.
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#13 Which is NOT an example of primary active transport:
na+, K+-aTPase (or na+–K+ pump) in cell membranes transports Na+ from intracellular to extracellular fluid and K+ from extracellular to intracellular fluid; it maintains low intracellular [Na+] and high intracellular [K+].
Both na+ and K+ are transported against their electrochemical gradients.
Energy is provided from the terminal phosphate bond of ATP.
The usual stoichiometry is 3 na+/2 K+.
Specific inhibitors of Na+, K+-ATPase are the cardiac glycoside drugs ouabain and digitalis.
Examples are na+-Ca2+ exchange and na+–H+ exchange.
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#14 Characteristics of secondary active transport:
The transport of two or more solutes is coupled.
The transport of one or more solutes is coupled.
The transport of two or more solutions is coupled.
The transport of one or more solutions is coupled.
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#15 Characteristics of secondary active transport:
One of the solutes (usually Na+) is transported “downhill” and provides energy for the “uphill” transport of the other solution(s).
Two of the solutes (usually Na+) is transported “downhill” and provides energy for the “uphill” transport of the other solute(s).
One of the solutions (usually Na+) is transported “downhill” and provides energy for the “uphill” transport of the other solute(s).
One of the solutes (usually Na+) is transported “downhill” and provides energy for the “uphill” transport of the other solute(s).
One of the solutes (usually Na+) is transported “uphill” and provides energy for the “uphill” transport of the other solute(s).
Two of the solutes (usually Na+) is transported “uphill” and provides energy for the “uphill” transport of the other solute(s).
One of the solutes (usually Na+) is transported “uphill” and provides energy for the “uphill” transport of the other solution(s).
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#16 Characteristics of secondary active transport are:
Metabolic energy is not provided directly but indirectly from the na+ gradient that is maintained across cell membranes. Thus, inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, decrease the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventu- ally inhibit secondary active transport.
Metabolic energy is not provided directly but indirectly from the na+ gradient that is maintained across cell membranes. Thus, inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, decrease the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventually inhibit secondary inactive transport.
Metabolic energy is not provided directly but indirectly from the na+ gradient that is maintained across cell membranes. Thus, inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, increase the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventually inhibit secondary active transport.
Metabolic energy is not provided directly but indirectly from the na+ gradient that is maintained across cell membranes. Thus, inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, increase the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventually inhibit primary inactive transport.
Metabolic energy is provided directly but indirectly from the na+ gradient that is maintained across cell membranes. Thus, inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, increase the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventually inhibit secondary active transport.
Metabolic energy is provided indirectly but indirectly from the na+ gradient that is maintained across cell membranes. Thus, inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, increase the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventually inhibit secondary inactive transport.
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#17 Example of na+– glucose cotransport:
The carrier for Na+–glucose cotransport is located in the luminal membrane of intestinal mucosal and renal proximal tubule cells.
The carrier for Na+–glucose cotransport is not located in the luminal membrane of intestinal mucosal and renal proximal tubule cells.
The carrier for Na+–glucose cotransport is located in the luminal membrane of intestinal mucosal and renal proximal brain cells.
The carrier for Na+–glucose cotransport is not located in the luminal membrane of intestinal mucosal and renal proximal tubule cells.
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#18 Example of na+ –Ca2+ countertransport or exchange:
Many cell membranes contain a Na+–Ca2+ exchanger that transports Ca2+ “uphill” from high intracellular [Ca2+] to high extracellular [Ca2]. Ca2+ and Na+ move in opposite directions across the cell membrane.
Many cell membranes contain a Na+–Ca2+ exchanger that transports Ca2+ “uphill” from low intracellular [Ca2+] to high extracellular [Ca2]. Ca2+ and Na+ move in opposite directions across the cell membrane.
Many cell membranes contain a Na+–Ca2+ exchanger that transports Ca2+ “uphill” from low intracellular [Ca2+] to high extracellular [Ca2]. Ca2+ and Na+ move in the same directions across the cell membrane.
Many cell membranes contain a Na+–Ca2+ exchanger that transports Ca2+ “uphill” from low intracellular [Ca2+] to low extracellular [Ca2]. Ca2+ and Na+ move in the same directions across the cell membrane.
Many cell membranes contain a Na+–Ca2+ exchanger that transports Ca2+ “uphill” from low intracellular [Ca2+] to high extracellular [Ca2]. Ca2+ and Na+ move in the same directions across the cell nucleus.
Many cell membranes contain a Na+–Ca2+ exchanger that transports Ca2+ “uphill” from low intracellular [Ca2+] to low extracellular [Ca2]. Ca2+ and Na+ move in the same directions across the cell nucleus.
Many cell membranes contain a Na+–Ca2+ exchanger that transports Ca2+ “uphill” from low intracellular [Ca2+] to high extracellular [Ca2]. Ca2+ and Na+ move in the opposite directions across the cell nucleus.
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#19 Osmolarity:
is the concentration of osmotically active particles in a solution.
is the concentration of osmotically active particles in a solute.
is the concentration of osmotically inactive particles in a solution.
is the concentration of osmotically inactive particles in a solute.
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#20 Osmolarity:
is a colligative property that can be measured by 100 degrees Celsius
is a colligative property that cannot be measured by freezing point depression.
is a colligative property that can be measured by freezing point depression.
is not a colligative property that can be measured by 100 degrees Celsius
is a colligative property that can be measured by 100 degrees Fahrenheit
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#21 About osmosis and osmotic pressure:
osmosis is the flow of water into a permeable membrane from a solution with low solute concentration to a solution with high solute concentration.
osmosis is the flow of water into a semipermeable membrane from a solution with low solute concentration to a solution with high solute concentration.
osmosis is the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane from a solution with high solute concentration to a solution with high solute concentration.
osmosis is the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane from a solute with low solute concentration to a solution with high solute concentration.
osmosis is the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane from a solution with low solute concentration to a solution with high solution concentration.
osmosis is the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane from a solution with low solute concentration to a solution with high solute concentration.
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#22 The concentration of particles is converted to pressure according to the following equation:
osmotic pressure (mm Hg or atm) = number of particles in solution (osm/mol) per concentration (mol/L) X gas constant (0.082 L—atm/mol—K) X 100 celsius temperature (K)
osmotic pressure (mm Hg or atm) = number of particles in solution (osm/mol) X concentration (mol/L) X gas constant (0.082 L—atm/mol—K) X absolute temperature (K)
osmotic pressure (mm Hg or atm) = number of particles in solute (osm/mol) X concentration (mol/L) X gas constant (0.082 L—atm/mol—K) X absolute temperature (K)
osmotic pressure (mm Hg or atm) = number of particles in solution (osm/mol) per concentration (mol/L) X gas constant (0.082 L—atm/mol—K) X absolute temperature (K)
osmotic pressure (mm Hg or atm) = number of particles in solution (osm/mol) per concentration (mol/L) X gas constant (0.082 L—atm/mol—K) X Zero celsius temperature (K)
osmotic pressure (mm Hg or atm) = number of particles in solution (osm/mol) X concentration (mol/L) X gas constant (0.082 L—atm/mol—K) X Zero celsius temperature (K)
osmotic pressure (mm Hg or atm) = number of particles in solution (osm/mol) per concentration (mol/L) X gas constant (0.082 L—atm/mol—K) per Zero celsius temperature (K)
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#23 The osmotic pressure:
increases when the solute concentration increases.
decreases when the solute concentration increases.
increases when the solution concentration increases.
decreases when the solution concentration increases.
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#24 About the reflection coefficient (σ):
is a number between one and ten that describes the ease with which a solute permeates a membrane.
is a number between zero and ten that describes the ease with which a solute permeates a nucleus.
is a number between zero and ten that describes the ease with which a solution permeates a membrane.
is a number between zero and ten that describes the ease with which a solute permeates a membrane.
is a number between zero and one that describes the ease with which a solute permeates a membrane.
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#25 About the reflection coefficient (σ):
If the reflection coefficient is one, the solute is impermeable. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it causes water flow. serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly one.
If the reflection coefficient is ten, the solute is impermeable. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it does not cause water flow. serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly one.
If the reflection coefficient is one, the solute is impermeable. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it causes water flow. serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly ten.
If the reflection coefficient is ten, the solute is impermeable. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it causes water contention. serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly one.
If the reflection coefficient is one, the solute is permeable. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it causes water flow. serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly one.
If the reflection coefficient is ten, the solute is permeable. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it causes water flow. serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly one.
If the reflection coefficient is one, the solute is impermeable. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it causes lipid flow. serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly ten.
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#26 About the reflection coefficient (σ):
If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute is completely permeable. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. urea (a small solute) usually has a reflection coefficient of close to zero and it is, therefore, an ineffective osmole.
If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute is completely permeable. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. urea (a small solute) usually has a reflection coefficient of close to one and it is, therefore, an ineffective osmole.
If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute is completely permeable. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. urea (a small solute) usually does not have a reflection coefficient of close to zero and it is, therefore, an ineffective osmole.
If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute is completely permeable. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. urea (a small solute) usually does not have a reflection coefficient of close to one and it is, therefore, an ineffective osmole.
If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute is completely permeable. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. urea (a small solute) usually does not have a reflection coefficient of close to zero and it is, therefore, an effective osmole.
If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute is completely permeable. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. urea (a small solute) usually does not have a reflection coefficient of close to ten and it is, therefore, an effective osmole.
If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute is completely permeable. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. urea (a small solute) usually does not have a reflection coefficient of close to ten and it is, therefore, an effective osmole.
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#27 Effective osmotic pressure:
is the osmotic pressure (calculated by van’t Hoff’s law) added by the reflection coefficient.
is the osmotic pressure (calculated by van’t Hoff’s law) subtracted by the reflection coefficient.
is the osmotic pressure (calculated by van’t Hoff’s law) divided by the reflection coefficient.
is the osmotic pressure (calculated by van’t Hoff’s law) multiplied by the reflection coefficient.
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#28 About Ion channels:
are integral proteins that span the membrane and, when open, does not permit the passage of certain ions.
are not integral proteins that span the membrane and, when close, permit the passage of certain ions.
are integral proteins that span the membrane and, when close, permit the passage of certain ions.
are not integral proteins that span the membrane and, when open, permit the passage of certain ions.
are integral proteins that span the membrane and, when open, permit the passage of certain ions.
are integral proteins that span the membrane and, when close, does not permit the passage of certain ions.
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#29 The conductance of a channel:
depends on the probability that the channel is open. The higher the probability that a channel is open, the higher the conductance, or permeability. Opening and closing of channels are controlled by gates.
depends on the probability that the channel is open. The higher the probability that a channel is open, the lower the conductance, or permeability. Opening and closing of channels are controlled by gates.
depends on the probability that the channel is open. The higher the probability that a channel is closed, the higher the conductance, or permeability. Opening and closing of channels are controlled by gates.
depends on the probability that the channel is open. The higher the probability that a channel is open, the higher the conductance, or permeability. Closing and closing of channels are controlled by gates.
does not depend on the probability that the channel is open. The higher the probability that a channel is open, the higher the conductance, or permeability. Opening and closing of channels are controlled by gates.
does not depend on the probability that the channel is open. The higher the probability that a channel is open, the lower the conductance, or permeability. Opening and closing of channels are controlled by gates.
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#30 Ligand-gated channels:
are opened or closed by hormones, primary messengers, or neurotransmitters.
are opened or closed by hormones, second messengers, or neurotransmitters.
are opened or closed by hormones, tertiary messengers, or neurotransmitters.
are opened or closed by hormones, second messengers and not neurotransmitters.
are opened or closed by hormones, primary messengers and not neurotransmitters.
are opened or closed by hormones, tertiary messengers and not neurotransmitters.
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#31 A diffusion potential:
is the potential difference generated across a membrane similar to a concentration difference of an ion.
is the potential difference generated across a membrane during a concentration difference of an ion.
is the potential difference generated across a membrane before a concentration difference of an ion.
is the potential difference generated across a membrane after a concentration difference of an ion.
is not the potential difference generated across a membrane because of a concentration difference of an ion.
is the potential difference generated across a membrane because of a concentration difference of an ion.
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#32 The size of the diffusion potential:
does not depend on the size of the concentration gradient.
depends on the size of the concentration gradient.
depends on the volume of the concentration gradient.
depends on the charge of the concentration gradient.
does not depend on the charge of the concentration gradient.
depends on the flow of the concentration gradient.
does not depend on the flow of the concentration gradient.
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#33 The equilibrium potential:
is the potential difference that would exactly balance (oppose) the tendency for diffusion down a concentration difference.
is not the potential difference that would exactly balance (oppose) the tendency for diffusion down a concentration difference.
is the potential difference that would exactly balance (oppose) the tendency for diffusion up a concentration difference.
is the potential difference that would exactly balance (oppose) the tendency for diffusion up a solute difference.
is the potential difference that would exactly balance (oppose) the tendency for diffusion down a solution difference.
is not the potential difference that would exactly balance (oppose) the tendency for diffusion down a solute difference.
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#34 About Na+ diffusion potential:
Two solutions of NaCl are not separated by a membrane that is permeable to Na+ but not to Cl−. The NaCl concentration of solution 1 is lower than that of solution 2.
Two solutions of NaCl are separated by a membrane that is permeable to Na+ but not to Cl−. The NaCl concentration of solution 1 is higher than that of solution 2.
Two solutions of NaCl are not separated by a membrane that is not permeable to Na+ but not to Cl−. The NaCl concentration of solution 1 is lower than that of solution 2.
Two solutions of NaCl are not separated by a membrane that is permeable to Na+ but not to Cl−. The NaCl concentration of solution 1 is equal to that of solution 2.
Two solutions of NaCl are not separated by a membrane that is not permeable to Na+ but not to Cl−. The NaCl concentration of solution 1 is equal to that of solution 2.
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#35 Even more about Na+ diffusion potential:
Because the membrane is permeable to Na+, Na+ will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 down its concentration gradient. Cl− is impermeable and therefore will not accompany Na+.
Because the membrane is permeable to Na+, Na+ will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 up its concentration gradient. Cl− is impermeable and therefore will accompany Na+.
Because the membrane is impermeable to Na+, Na+ will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 down its concentration gradient. Cl− is impermeable and therefore will not accompany Na+.
Because the membrane is impermeable to Na+, Na+ will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 down its concentration gradient. Cl− is permeable and therefore will not accompany Na+.
Because the membrane is impermeable to Na+, Na+ will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 up its concentration gradient. Cl− is permeable and therefore will accompany Na+.
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#36 About Cl− diffusion potential:
Cl− will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 down its concentration gradient. Na+ is impermeable and therefore will not accompany Cl−.
Cl− will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 down its concentration gradient. Na+ is impermeable and therefore will accompany Cl−.
Cl− will diffuse from solution 1 to solution 2 down its concentration gradient. Na+ is permeable and therefore will not accompany Cl−.
Cl− will diffuse from solution 2 to solution 1 down its concentration gradient. Na+ is impermeable and therefore will not accompany Cl−.
Cl− will diffuse from solution 2 to solution 1 down its concentration gradient. Na+ is permeable and therefore will not accompany Cl−.
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#37 The Nernst equation:
is used to calculate the potential at a given concentration difference of an impermeable ion across a cell membrane.
is used to calculate the equilibrium potential at a given concentration difference of an impermeable ion across a cell membrane.
is used to calculate the potential at a given concentration difference of a permeable ion across a cell membrane.
is used to calculate the equilibrium potential at a given concentration difference of a permeable ion across a cell membrane.
is used to calculate the potential at a given solution difference of an impermeable ion across a cell membrane.
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#38 The driving force on an ion:
is the difference between the actual membrane potential (Em) and the ion’s equilibrium potential (calculated with the Nernst equation).
is the multiplication between the actual membrane potential (Em) and the ion’s equilibrium potential (calculated with the Nernst equation).
is the adding between the actual membrane potential (Em) and the ion’s equilibrium potential (calculated with the Nernst equation).
is the difference between the actual membrane potential (Em) and the ion’s potential (calculated with the Nernst equation).
is the difference between the membrane potential (Em) and the ion’s potential (calculated with the Nernst equation).
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#39 Current flow occurs if:
there is a driving force on the ion and the membrane is permeable to the ion.
there is not a driving force on the ion and the membrane is permeable to the ion.
there is a driving force on the ion and the membrane is impermeable to the ion.
there is not a driving force on the ion and the membrane is impermeable to the ion.
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#40 Inward current is
the flow of negative charge into the cell. Inward current polarizes the membrane potential.
the flow of positive charge into the cell. Inward current polarizes the membrane potential.
the flow of negative charge into the cell. Inward current depolarizes the membrane potential.
the flow of positive charge into the cell. Inward current depolarizes the membrane potential.
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#41 Tetrodotoxin (TTX) and lidocaine:
block these voltage-sensitive Na+ channels and abolish action potentials.
unblock these voltage-sensitive Na+ channels and abolish action potentials.
unblock these voltage-sensitive Na- channels and abolish action potentials.
block these voltage-sensitive Na- channels and abolish action potentials.
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#42 Relative refractory period
does not begin at the end of the absolute refractory period and continues until the membrane potential returns to the resting level.
begins at the end of the absolute refractory period and continues until the membrane potential returns to the resting level.
begins at the beginning of the absolute refractory period and continues until the membrane potential returns to the resting level.
begins at the beginning of the absolute refractory period and continues until the membrane potential does not return to the resting level.
does not begin at the beginning of the absolute refractory period and continues until the membrane potential does not return to the resting level.
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#43 Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and combines with receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane, causing:
a variation in its permeability to ions and, consequently, a change in its membrane ionization.
a variation in its permeability to ions and, consequently, a change in its membrane potential.
a change in its permeability to ions and, consequently, a change in its membrane ionization.
a change in its permeability to ions and, consequently, a change in its membrane potential.
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#44 Facilitation, augmentation, and posttetanic potentiation occur:
both during and after tetanic stimulation of the presynaptic neuron.
during tetanic stimulation of the presynaptic neuron.
before tetanic stimulation of the presynaptic neuron.
after tetanic stimulation of the presynaptic neuron.
#45 About Troponin it is correct to say:
Troponin T (“T” for tropomyosin) does not attach the troponin complex to tropomyosin.
Troponin T (“T” for tropomyosin) attaches the troponin complex to tropomyosin.
Troponin I (“I” for inhibition) does not inhibit the interaction of actin and myosin.
Troponin C (“C” for Ca2+) is the Ca2+-binding protein that, when bound to Ca2+, does not permit the interaction of actin and myosin.
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#46 Pheochromocytoma is:
a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines and is not associated with decreased excretion of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxy-mandelic acid (vmA).
a tumor of the adrenal medulla that does not secrete excessive amounts of catecholamines and is associated with decreased excretion of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxy-mandelic acid (vmA).
a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines and is associated with decreased excretion of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxy-mandelic acid (vmA).
a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines and is associated with increased excretion of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxy-mandelic acid (vmA).
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#47 About the mechanism of action for nicotinic receptors:
ACh binds to α subunits of the nicotinic ADH receptor. The nicotinic ACh receptors are also ion channels for Na+ and K+.
ACh binds to α subunits of the nicotinic ACh receptor. The nicotinic ACh receptors are not also ion channels for Na+ and K+.
ACh does not bind to α subunits of the nicotinic ADH receptor. The nicotinic ACh receptors are not also ion channels for Na+ and K+.
ACh does not bind to α subunits of the nicotinic ACh receptor. The nicotinic ACh receptors are also ion channels for Na+ and K+.
ACh binds to α subunits of the nicotinic ACh receptor. The nicotinic ACh receptors are also ion channels for Na+ and K+.
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#48 Destruction of the thalamic nuclei results in:
loss of sensation on the lateral side of the body.
gain of sensation on the contralateral side of the body.
loss of sensation on the contralateral side of the body.
gain of sensation on the lateral side of the body.
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#49 Vitamin A is necessary for:
the regeneration of 11-cis rhodopsin.
the generation of 11-cis rhodopsin.
the regeneration of 11-cis metarhodopsin.
the regeneration of 11-cis metarhodopsin.
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#50 About the location and structure of the organ of Corti:
Inner hair cells are arranged in single rows and are numerous in number.
The spiral ganglion contains the cell bodies of the auditory nerve [cranial nerve (CN) VIII], which synapse on the hair cells.
outer hair cells are arranged in parallel rows and are fewer in number than the inner hair cells.
The organ of Corti is not located on the basilar membrane.
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#51 If the stereocilia are bent toward the kinocilium:
the hair cell hypopolarizes (inhibition).
the hair cell hyperpolarizes (inhibition).
the hair cell polarizes (relaxation).
the hair cell depolarizes (excitation).
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#52 Golgi tendon organs (group Ib afferents) are:
arranged in series with extrafusal muscle fibers. They do not detect muscle distension .
arranged in series with extrafusal muscle fibers. They detect muscle tension.
arranged in series with intrafusal muscle fibers. They detect muscle tension.
arranged in series with intrafusal muscle fibers. They dot not detect muscle tension.
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#53 Pontine reticulospinal tract:
Stimulation has a general stimulatory effect on both extensors and flexors, with not effect on extensors.
does not originate in the nuclei in the pons and projects to the ventromedial spinal cord.
originates in the nuclei in the pons and projects to the ventromedial spinal cord.
Stimulation does not have a general stimulatory effect on both extensors and flexors, with not effect on extensors.
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#54 Tectospinal tract:
does not originate in the superior colliculus and projects to the cervical spinal cord.
originates in the superior colliculus and projects to the cervical spinal cord.
originates in the superior colliculus and does not project to the cervical spinal cord.
originates in the inferior colliculus and projects to the cervical spinal cord.
does not originate in the inferior colliculus and projects to the cervical spinal cord.
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#55 Lesions of the subthalamic nucleus:
result in wild but not flinging movements (e.g., hemiballismus).
dot no result in wild, flinging movements (e.g., hemiballismus).
are caused by the release of inhibition on the lateral side.
are not caused by the release of inhibition on the contralateral side.
are caused by the release of inhibition on the contralateral side.
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#56 Temperature sensors on the skin and in the hypothalamus:
“read” the core temperature and relay this information to the posterior hypothalamus.
“read” the core temperature and relay this information to the superior hypothalamus.
“read” the core temperature and relay this information to the anterior hypothalamus.
do not “read” the core temperature and relay this information to the anterior hypothalamus.
dot not “read” the core temperature and relay this information to the posterior hypothalamus.
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#57 Aspirin reduces fever by:
producing cyclooxygenase, thereby releasing the production of prostaglandins.
producing cyclooxygenase, thereby inhibiting the production of prostaglandins.
inhibiting cyclooxygenase, thereby inhibiting the production of prostaglandins.
producing cyclooxygenase, thereby releasing the production of prostaglandins and ACh.
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#58 Malignant hyperthermia:
is caused in susceptible individuals by inhalation anesthetics.
is not caused in susceptible individuals by inhalation anesthetics.
is not characterized by a massive increase in oxygen consumption and heat production by skeletal muscle, which causes a rapid rise in body temperature.
is characterized by a massive increase in oxygen consumption and heat production by skeletal muscle, which does not cause a rapid rise in body temperature.
is not characterized by a massive increase in oxygen consumption and heat production by skeletal muscle, which does not cause a rapid rise in body temperature.
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#59 Arterioles:
are the site of lowest resistance in the cardiovascular system.
are the smallest branches of the arteries.
are the destination of lowest resistance in the cardiovascular system.
are the destination of highest resistance in the cardiovascular system.
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#60 Bloodflow:
blood flows from low pressure to high pressure.
Blood flow is proportional to the resistance of the blood vessels.
the pressure gradient (ΔP) does not drive blood flow.
the pressure gradient (ΔP) drives blood flow.
Blood flow is not inversely proportional to the resistance of the blood vessels.
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#61 Capacitance (compliance):
is related to elastance, or stiffness. The greater the amount of elastic tissue there is in a blood vessel, the higher the elastance is, and the lower the compliance is.
describes the distensibility of blood vessels.
is related to elastance, or stiffness. The smaller the amount of elastic tissue there is in a blood vessel, the higher the elastance is, and the lower the compliance is.
is related to elastance, or stiffness. The smaller the amount of elastic tissue there is in a blood vessel, the lower the elastance is, and the higher the compliance is.
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#62 Pulse pressure:
is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.
increases in capacitance, such as those that occur with the aging process, cause increases in pulse pressure.
increases in capacitance, such as those that occur with the aging process, cause decrease in pulse pressure.
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#63 Left atrial pressure is:
not estimated by the pulmonary wedge pressure.
estimated by the pulmonary wedge pressure.
is not approximately equal to the left atrial pressure.
is approximately equal to the right atrial pressure.
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#64 The resting membrane potential is determined by:
the conductance to K+ and does not approach the K+ equilibrium potential.
the conductance to Na+ and approaches the K+ equilibrium potential.
the conductance to K+ and approaches the Na+ equilibrium potential.
the conductance to K+ and approaches the K+ equilibrium potential.
the conductance to K+ and does not approach the Na+ equilibrium potential.
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#65 About the ventricles, atria, and the Purkinje system, specifically about phase 02:
is not the plateau of the action potential.
is the plateau of the action potential.
is not caused by a transient increase in Ca2+ conductance, which results in an inward Ca2+ current, and by an increase in K+ conductance.
is caused by a transient increase in Ca2+ conductance, which does not result in an inward Ca2+ current, and by an increase in K+ conductance.
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#66 Conduction velocity:
does not reflect the time required for excitation to spread throughout cardiac tissue.
reflects the time required for excitation to spread throughout cardiac tissue.
reflects the time required for relaxation to spread throughout cardiac tissue.
does not reflects the time required for relaxation to spread throughout cardiac tissue.
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#67 Sarcomere:
is not similar to the contractile unit in skeletal muscle.
is the contractile unit of the myocardial cell.
does not run from Z line to Z line.
contains thick filaments (myosin) but not thin filaments (actin, troponin, tropomyosin).
does not contain thick filaments (myosin).
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#68 Positive inotropic agents:
produce an increase in contractility.
do not produce an increase in contractility.
produce a decrease in contractility.
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#69 About Positive staircase:
Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as the intracellular [Ca2+] decreases cumulatively over several beats.
Increased heart rate decreases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as the intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats.
Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as the intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats.
Increased heart rate decreases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as the intracellular [Ca2+] decreases cumulatively over several beats.
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#70 About the Frank-starling relationship:
describes the increases in stroke volume and cardiac output that occur in response to an decrease in venous return or end-diastolic volume.
describes the increases in stroke volume and cardiac input that occur in response to an increase in venous return or end-diastolic volume.
describes the increases in stroke volume and cardiac input that occur in response to an increase in venous return or end-diastolic volume.
describes the increases in stroke volume and cardiac output that occur in response to an increase in venous return or end-diastolic volume.
describes the decreases in stroke volume and cardiac output that occur in response to an decrease in venous return or end-diastolic volume.
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#71 When cardiac output and venous return are simultaneously plotted as a function of right atrial pressure:
can be changed by altering the cardiac output curve, the venous return curve, or both curves simultaneously.
they intersect at both values of right atrial pressure.
they intersect at a single value of left atrial pressure.
they intersect at a single value of right atrial pressure.
can be changed by altering the cardiac output curve, the venous return curve, or both curves simultaneously.
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#72 Stroke volume:
is the volume ejected from the ventricle on each beat.
is the volume ejected from the atrium on each beat.
is the volume injected from the ventricle on each beat.
is the volume injected from the atrium on each beat.
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#73 The responses of the vasomotor center to a decrease in mean arterial blood pressure are:
coordinated to increase the arterial pressure back to 200 mm Hg.
coordinated to increase the arterial pressure back to 100 mm Hg.
coordinated to increase the arterial pressure back to 300 mm Hg.
coordinated to increase the arterial pressure back to 400 mm Hg.
coordinated to decrease the arterial pressure back to 100 mm Hg.
coordinated to decrease the arterial pressure back to 200 mm Hg.
coordinated to decrease the arterial pressure back to 300 mm Hg.
coordinated to decrease the arterial pressure back to 400 mm Hg.
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#74 A decrease in renal perfusion pressure causes:
the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole to secrete renin.
the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole to not secrete renin.
conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin II in plasma.
conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin II and and decrease blood pressure.
conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin II and and increase blood pressure.
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#75 About vasopressin [antidiuretic hormone (adh)]:
is not involved in the regulation of blood pressure in response to hemorrhage and in minute-to-minute regulation of normal blood pressure.
is involved in the regulation of blood pressure in response to hemorrhage and in minute-to-minute regulation of normal blood pressure.
Atrial receptors respond to a decrease in blood volume (or blood pressure) and does not cause the release of vasopressin from the anterior pituitary.
Atrial receptors respond to a decrease in blood volume (or blood pressure) and cause the release of vasopressin from the anterior pituitary.
Atrial receptors respond to an increase in blood volume (or blood pressure) and cause the release of vasopressin from the posterior pituitary.
is involved in the regulation of blood pressure in response to hemorrhage, but not in minute-to-minute regulation of normal blood pressure.
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#76 If metabolic activity in skeletal muscle increases as a result of strenuous exercise:
blood flow to the muscle will increase proportionately to meet metabolic demands.
blood flow to the muscle will decrease proportionately to meet metabolic demands.
blood flow to the muscle will decrease inversely to meet metabolic demands.
blood flow to the muscle will increase inversely to meet metabolic demands.
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#77 Sympathetic innervation of vascular smooth muscle:
decreases in sympathetic tone does not cause vasodilation.
increases in sympathetic tone cause vasodilation.
decreases in sympathetic tone cause vasoconstriction.
Increases in sympathetic tone cause vasoconstriction.
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#78 Functional residual capacity (FRC):
is the volume remaining in the lungs after a tidal volume is inspired.
is the sum of ERV and RV.
is the volume leaving in the lungs after a tidal volume is expired.
is the volume leaving in the lungs after a tidal volume is inspired.
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#79 In obstructive lung disease, such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):
only FEV1 and FVC are increased, but FEV1 is reduced more than FVC is: thus, FeV1/FVC is decreased.
both FEV1 and FVC are increased, but FEV1 is reduced more than FVC is: thus, FeV1/FVC is decreased.
only FEV1 and FVC are reduced, but FEV1 is reduced more than FVC is: thus, FeV1/FVC is decreased.
both FEV1 and FVC are reduced, but FEV1 is reduced more than FVC is: thus, FeV1/FVC is decreased.
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#80 Compliance of the respiratory system:
does not describe the distensibility of the lungs and chest wall.
is analogous to capacitance in the cardiovascular system.
is related to elastance, which depends on the amount of elastic tissue.
is related to stiffness.
is not the slope of the pressure–volume curve.
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#81 Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome:
can occur in premature infants because of the lack of surfactant.
cannot occur in premature infants because of the lack of surfactant.
the infant does not exhibit atelectasis (lungs collapse), difficulty reinflating the lungs (as a result of decreased compliance), and hypoxemia (as a result of decreased V/Q).
the infant does not exhibit atelectasis (lungs collapse), difficulty reinflating the lungs (as a result of decreased compliance), and hyperoxemia (as a result of decreased V/Q).
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#82 High lung volumes are:
are not associated with greater traction on airways and decreased airway resistance.
associated with greater traction on airways and increased airway resistance.
associated with lower traction on airways and decreased airway resistance.
associated with greater traction on airways and decreased airway resistance.
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#83 Low lung volumes are:
associated with more traction and increased airway resistance, even to the point of airway collapse.
associated with less traction and increased airway resistance, even to the point of airway collapse.
associated with less traction and increased airway resistance, not to the point of airway collapse.
associated with more traction and increased airway resistance, not to the point of airway collapse.
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#84 The inspiratory muscles contract and cause the volume of the thorax to increase:
As lung volume increases, alveolar pressure decreases to less than atmospheric pressure (i.e., becomes negative).
As lung volume increases, alveolar pressure decreases to less than atmospheric pressure (i.e., becomes positive).
As lung volume decreases, alveolar pressure decreases to less than atmospheric pressure (i.e., becomes positive).
As lung volume increases, alveolar pressure increases to less than atmospheric pressure (i.e., becomes negative).
As lung volume increases, alveolar pressure increases to less than atmospheric pressure (i.e., becomes negative).
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#85 “pink puffers” (primarily emphysema) have:
medium hypoxemia and, because they maintain alveolar ventilation, normocapnia (normal Pco2).
medium hypoxemia and, because they do not maintain alveolar ventilation, normocapnia (normal Pco2).
severe hypoxemia and, because they do not maintain alveolar ventilation, normocapnia (normal Pco2).
severe hypoxemia and, because they maintain alveolar ventilation, normocapnia (normal Pco2).
mild hypoxemia and, because they maintain alveolar ventilation, normocapnia (normal Pco2).
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#86 O2-binding capacity of hemoglobin:
is measured at 75% saturation.
is not expressed in units of mL O2/g hemoglobin
is expressed in units of mL CO2/g hemoglobin
is measured at 50% saturation.
limits the amount of CO2 that can be carried in blood.
is the minimum amount of O2 that can be bound to hemoglobin.
is the maximum amount of O2 that can be bound to hemoglobin.
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#87 O2 content of blood:
depends on the hemoglobin concentration, the O2-binding capacity of hemoglobin, the Po2, and not the P70 of hemoglobin.
does not depend on the hemoglobin concentration, the O2-binding capacity of hemoglobin, the Po2, and the P50 of hemoglobin.
depends on the hemoglobin concentration, the O2-binding capacity of hemoglobin, the Po2, and not the P50 of hemoglobin.
is the total amount of O2 carried in blood, including bound and dissolved O2.
is the total amount of O2 carried in blood, not including bound and dissolved O2.
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#88 At a po2 of 25 mm hg:
hemoglobin is 50% saturated.
hemoglobin is 75% saturated.
hemoglobin is 100% saturated.
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#89 At a po2 of 40 mm hg:
hemoglobin is 100% saturated
hemoglobin is 75% saturated
hemoglobin is 50% saturated
hemoglobin is 25% saturated
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#90 Erythropoietin(epo):
increased O2 delivery to the kidneys causes increased production of hypoxia-inducible factor 1a.
decreased O2 delivery to the kidneys causes increased production of hypoxia-inducible factor 2a.
is a growth factor that is synthesized in the kidneys in response to hyperpoxia
is a growth factor that is synthesized in the kidneys in response to hypoxia
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#91 Cardiac output of the right ventricle:
Although pressures in the pulmonary circulation are low, they are sufficient to pump the cardiac output because resistance of the pulmonary circulation is proportionately high.
is arterial blood flow.
is equal to cardiac output of the left ventricle.
Although pressures in the pulmonary circulation are low, they are sufficient to pump the cardiac input because resistance of the pulmonary circulation is proportionately high.
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#92 Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance is:
pulmonary vascular resistance increases.
with the first breath, the alveoli of the neonate are not oxygenated.
very low because of generalized hypoxic vasoconstriction; as a result, blood flow through the fetal lungs is low.
very high because of generalized hypoxic vasoconstriction; as a result, blood flow through the fetal lungs is high.
very high because of generalized hypoxic vasocon- striction; as a result, blood flow through the fetal lungs is low.
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#93 Right-to-left shunts:
The magnitude of a right-to-left shunt can be estimated by having the patient breathe 25% O2 and measuring the degree of dilution of oxygenated arterial blood by nonoxygenated shunted (venous) blood.
The magnitude of a right-to-left shunt can be estimated by having the patient breathe 50% O2 and measuring the degree of dilution of oxygenated arterial blood by nonoxygenated shunted (non venous) blood.
The magnitude of a right-to-left shunt can be estimated by having the patient breathe 50% O2 and measuring the degree of dilution of oxygenated arterial blood by nonoxygenated shunted (venous) blood.
always result in a increase in arterial po2 because of the admixture of venous blood with arterial blood.
are seen in tetralogy of Fallot.
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#94 Dorsal respiratory group:
Input to the dorsal respiratory group comes from the vagus and not glossopharyngeal nerves.
Input to the dorsal respiratory group comes from the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves.
is secondarily responsible for inspiration and generates the basic rhythm for breathing.
is not primarily responsible for inspiration and generates the basic rhythm for breathing.
is primarily responsible for inspiration and generates the basic rhythm for breathing.
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#95 During exercise, there is an increase in ventilatory rate that:
matches the increase in O2 consumption and CO2 production by the body.
does not match the increase in O2 consumption and CO2 production by the body.
The stimulus for the increased ventilation rate is completely understood.
joint and muscle receptors are not activated and cause an increase in breathing rate at the beginning of exercise.
joint and muscle receptors are activated and cause a decrease in breathing rate at the beginning of exercise.
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#96 Plasma protein concentration and hematocrit decrease :
because the addition of fluid to the ECF does not dilute the protein and red blood cells (RBCs).
because the addition of fluid to the ECF dilutes the protein and red blood cells (RBCs).
ECF osmolarity is changed, the RBCs will not shrink or swell.
ECF osmolarity is unchanged, the RBCs will shrink or swell.
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#97 Vasoconstriction of renal arterioles, which leads to a decrease in RBF, is produced by:
deactivation of the sympathetic nervous system and angiotensin I.
deactivation of the sympathetic nervous system and angiotensin II.
activation of the sympathetic nervous system and angiotensin I.
activation of the sympathetic nervous system and angiotensin II.
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#98 About the autoregulation of RBF it is true:
is accomplished by changing renal vascular resistance. If arterial pressure changes, a proportional change occurs in renal vascular resistance to maintain a constant RBF.
Tubuloglomerular feedback, in which decreased renal arterial pressure leads to increased delivery of fluid to the macula densa. The macula densa senses the increased load and causes constriction of the nearby afferent arteriole, increasing resistance to maintain constant blood flow.
Myogenic mechanism, in which the renal afferent arterioles contract in response to stretch. Thus, decreased renal arterial pressure stretches the arterioles, which contract and increase resistance to maintain constant blood flow.
RBF remains constant over the range of arterial pressures from 50 to 300 mm Hg (autoregulation).
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#99 Estimates of GFR with blood urea nitrogen (BuN) and serum [creatinine]:
GFR decreases with age, although serum [creatinine] remains constant because of increased muscle mass.
In prerenal azotemia (hypovolemia), BUN increases more than serum creatinine and there is a decreased BuN/creatinine ratio (>20:1).
Both BUN and serum [creatinine] increase when GFR decreases.
is the fraction of RPF filtered across the glomerular capillaries.
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#100 It is true about the Starling equation:
Rarely, anionic glycoproteins line the filtration barrier and restrict the filtration of plasma proteins, which are also negatively charged.
Rarely, anionic glycoproteins line the filtration barrier and restrict the filtration of plasma proteins, which are also positively charged.
In glomerular disease, the anionic charges on the barrier may be not removed, resulting in proteinuria.
Normally, anionic glycoproteins line the filtration barrier and restrict the filtration of plasma proteins, which are also positively charged.
The glomerular barrier consists of the capillary endothelium, basement membrane, and filtration slits of the podocytes.
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#101 About the reabsorption of glucose:
At plasma glucose concentrations less than 250 mg/dL, all of the filtered glucose can be reabsorbed because plenty of carriers are available; in this range, the line for reabsorption is not the same as that for filtration.
Na+–glucose cotransport in the proximal tubule reabsorbs glucose from tubular fluid into the blood. There are a limited number of Na+–glucose carriers.
At plasma glucose concentrations less than 50 mg/dL, all of the filtered glucose can be reabsorbed because plenty of carriers are available; in this range, the line for reabsorption is the same as that for filtration.
At plasma glucose concentrations less than 250 mg/dL, all of the filtered glucose can be reabsorbed because some of carriers are available; in this range, the line for reabsorption is the same as that for filtration.
Na+–glucose cotransport in the proximal tubule reabsorbs glucose from tubular fluid into the blood. There are an unlimited number of Na+–glucose carriers.
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#102 Splay:
represents the excretion of glucose in urine before saturation of reabsorption (Tm) is partially achieved.
occurs between plasma glucose concentrations of approximately 150 and 250 mg/dL.
is the region of the glucose curves between threshold and Tm.
is explained by the heterogeneity of nephrons and the relatively high affinity of the Na+– glucose carriers.
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#103 Excretion of PAH:
The curve for excretion is steepest at high plasma PAH concentrations (lower than at Tm). Once the Tm for secretion is exceeded and all of the carriers for secretion are saturated, the excretion curve flattens and becomes unparallel to the curve for filtration.
The curve for excretion is steepest at high plasma PAH concentrations (lower than at Tm). Once the Tm for secretion is exceeded and all of the carriers for secretion are saturated, the excretion curve flattens and becomes parallel to the curve for filtration.
Excretion of PAH is the sum of filtration across the glomerular capillaries plus secretion from peritubular capillary blood.
Excretion of PAH is the difference of filtration across the glomerular capillaries plus secretion from peritubular capillary blood.
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#104 Weak acids:
At alkaline urine pH, the A− form predominates, there is less back-diffusion, and there is increased excretion of the weak acid. For example, the excretion of salicylic acid (a weak acid) can be decreased by alkalinizing the urine.
At acidic urine pH, the HA form predominates, there is more back-diffusion, and there is increased excretion of the weak acid.
The A− form, which is charged and not lipid soluble, can back-diffuse.
The HA form, which is charged and lipid soluble, can “back-diffuse” from urine to blood.
have an HA form and an A- form.
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#105 Glomerulotubular balance in the proximal tubule:
if GFR spontaneously increases, the filtered load of Na+ does not increase.
maintains constant fractional reabsorption (two-thirds, or 67%) of the filtered Na+ and H2O.
glomerulotubular balance functions such that Na+ reabsorption also will decrease, ensuring that a constant fraction is reabsorbed.
The mechanism of glomerulotubular balance is based on Starling forces in the peritubular capillaries, which alter the reabsorption of Na+ and H2O in the distal tubule.
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#106 TF/P ratios along the proximal tubule:
In the early proximal tubule, Cl- is reabsorbed proportionately less than water, so its TF/P value is smaller than 1.0.
Glucose, amino acids, and HCo3- are reabsorbed proportionately more than water, so their TF/P values fall below 2.0.
Moving along the proximal tubule, TF/P for Na+ and osmolarity remain at 1.0 because Na+ and total solute are not reabsorbed proportionately with water, that is, isosmotically.
At the beginning of the proximal tubule (i.e., Bowman space), TF/P for freely filtered substances is 1.0, since no reabsorption or secretion has taken place yet.
Inulin is not reabsorbed, so its TF/P value decreases steadily above 1.0, as water is reabsorbed and inulin is “left behind.”
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#107 Shifts of K+ between the ICF and ECF:
Most of the body’s K+ is not located in the ICF.
A shift of K+ into cells does not cause hypokalemia.
A shift of K+ out of cells causes hyperkalemia.
Most of the body’s K- is located in the ICF.
A shift of K- into cells does not cause hypokalemia.
A shift of K- out of cells causes hyperkalemia.
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#108 About dietary K+ it is true:
A diet high in K+ increases K+ secretion, and a diet low in K+ decreases K+ secretion.
A diet high in K+ decreases K+ secretion, and a diet low in K+ decreases K+ secretion.
On a high-K+ diet, intracellular K+ decreases so that the driving force for K+ secretion also increases.
On a high-K+ diet, intracellular K+ decreases so that the driving force for K+ secretion also decreases.
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#109 Aldosterone:
decreases K+ secretion.
The mechanism involves increased Na+ entry into the cells across the luminal membrane and increased pumping of Na+ out of the cells by the Na+ –K+ pump.
The mechanism involves increased Na+ entry into the cells across the luminal membrane and decreased pumping of Na+ out of the cells by the Na+ –K+ pump.
Hyperaldosteronism decreases K+ secretion and causes hypokalemia.
Hypoaldosteronism increases K+ secretion and causes hyperkalemia.
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#110 About urea it is true:
The distal tubule, cortical collecting ducts, and outer medullary collecting ducts are impermeable to urea; thus, urea is reabsorbed by these segments.
Urea is secreted into the thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle by simple diffusion (from the high concentration of urea in the medullary interstitial fluid).
Thirty percent of the filtered urea is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule by simple diffusion.
Urea is reabsorbed and secreted in the nephron by diffusion, either simple or facilitated, depending on the segment of the nephron.
AdH stimulates a facilitated diffusion transporter for urea (uT1) in the outer medullary collecting ducts.
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#111 About Calcium(Ca2+) it is true:
loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide) cause decreased urinary Ca2+ excretion. Because Ca2+ reab- sorption is linked to Na+ reabsorption in the loop of Henle, inhibiting Na+ reabsorption with a loop diuretic also inhibits Ca2+ reabsorption.
ogether, the proximal tubule and thick ascending limb reabsorb more than 90% of the filtered Ca2+ by active processes that are coupled to Na+ reabsorption.
sixty percent of the plasma Ca2+ is filtered across the glomerular capillaries.
If volume is replaced, loop diuretics cannot be used in the treatment of hypercalcemia.
Together, the distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb 18% of the filtered Ca2+ by an active process.
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#112 About Magnesium(Mg2+) it is true:
is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, and distal tubule.
In the thick ascending limb, Mg2+ and Ca2+ compete for reabsorption; therefore, hypercalcemia causes an decrease in Mg2+ excretion (by inhibiting Mg2+ reabsorption). Likewise, hypermagnesemia causes a decrease in Ca2+ excretion (by inhibiting Ca2+ reabsorption).
In the thick ascending limb, Mg2+ and Ca2+ compete for reabsorption; therefore, hypercalcemia causes an increase in Mg2+ excretion (by inhibiting Mg2+ reabsorption). Likewise, hypermagnesemia causes a decrease in Ca2+ excretion (by inhibiting Ca2+ reabsorption).
is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, thick descending limb of the loop of Henle, and distal tubule.
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#113 Corticopapillary osmotic gradient—high AdH:
is not maintained by countercurrent exchange in the vasa recta.
is not established by countercurrent multiplication and urea recycling.
is the gradient of osmolarity from the cortex(300mOsm/L)to the papilla (1200mOsm/L) and is composed primarily of NaCl and urea.
is the gradient of osmolarity from the cortex(30mOsm/L)to the papilla(120mOsm/L) and is composed primarily of NaCl and urea.
is the gradient of osmolarity from the cortex(3mOsm/L)to the papilla(12mOsm/L) and is composed primarily of NaCl and urea.
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#114 Countercurrent multiplication in the loop of Henle:
does not depend on NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb and countercurrent flow in the descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle.
depends on NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb and countercurrent flow in the descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle.
is diminished by AdH, which stimulates NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb. Therefore, the presence of ADH increases the size of the corticopapillary osmotic gradient.
is augmented by AdH, which stimulates NaCl reabsorption in the thick descending limb. Therefore, the presence of ADH increases the size of the corticopapillary osmotic gradient.
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#115 About late distal tubule—high AdH:
H2O is reabsorbed from the tubule until the osmolarity of distal tubular fluid equals that of the surrounding interstitial fluid in the renal cortex (30 mOsm/L).
H2O is reabsorbed from the tubule until the osmolarity of distal tubular fluid equals that of the surrounding interstitial fluid in the renal cortex (300 mOsm/L).
AdH increases the H2o permeability of the principal cells of the late distal tubule.
TF/Posm = 1.0 at the beginning of the distal tubule because osmotic equilibration occurs in the presence of ADH.
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#116 About collecting ducts—high AdH:
As in the late distal tubule, AdH increases the H2o permeability of the principal cells of the collecting ducts.
As tubular fluid flows through the collecting ducts, it passes through the corticopapillary gradient (regions of increasingly higher osmolarity), which was not previously established by countercurrent multiplication and urea recycling.
H2O is reabsorbed from the collecting ducts until the osmolarity of tubular fluid does not equal that of the surrounding interstitial fluid.
The osmolarity of the final urine equals that at the bend of the loop of Henle and the tip of the papilla (120 mOsm/L).
TF/Posm < 1.0 because osmotic equilibration occurs with the corticopapillary gradient in the presence of ADH.
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#117 About the mechanism of slow wave production:
action potentials, produced on bottom of the background of slow waves, then does not initiate phasic contractions of the smooth muscle cells.
action potentials, produced on bottom of the background of slow waves, then initiate phasic contractions of the smooth muscle cells.
depolarization during each slow wave brings the membrane potential of smooth muscle cells closer to threshold and, therefore, decreases the probability that action potentials will occur.
is the cyclic opening of Ca2+ channels (depolarization) followed by opening of K+ channels (repolarization).
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#118 About swallowing:
The nasopharynx closes and then breathing is inhibited.
The swallowing reflex is coordinated in the medulla. Fibers in the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves carry information between the GI tract and the medulla.
The laryngeal muscles contract to open the glottis and elevate the larynx.
Peristalsis begins in the pharynx to propel the food bolus toward the esophagus. Simultaneously, the lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to permit the food bolus to enter the esophagus.
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#119 About esophageal motility it is false:
The esophagus propels the swallowed food into the stomach.
Sphincters at either end of the esophagus prevent air from entering the upper esophagus and gastric acid from entering the lower esophagus.
Because the esophagus is located in the thorax, intraesophageal pressure equals tho- racic pressure, which is lower than atmospheric pressure. In fact, a balloon catheter placed in the esophagus can be used to measure intrathoracic pressure.
As part of the swallowing reflex, the upper esophageal sphincter relaxes to permit swal- lowed food to enter the esophagus.
The lower esophageal sphincter then contracts so that food will not reflux into the pharynx.
A primary peristaltic contraction creates an area of high pressure behind the food bolus. The peristaltic contraction moves down the esophagus and propels the food bolus along. Gravity accelerates the movement.
A secondary peristaltic contraction clears the esophagus of any remaining food.
As the food bolus approaches the lower end of the esophagus, the lower esophageal sphincter relaxes. This relaxation is vagally mediated, and the neurotransmitter is vIP.
The orad region of the stomach relaxes (“receptive relaxation”) to allow the food bolus to enter the stomach.
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#120 About the Gastric motility it is false:
The stomach has three layers of smooth muscle — the usual longitudinal and circular layers and a third oblique layer.
The stomach has three anatomic divisions—the fundus, body, and antrum.
The orad region of the stomach includes the fundus and the proximal body. This region does not contain oxyntic glands and is responsible for receiving the ingested meal.
The caudad region of the stomach includes the antrum and the distal body. This region is responsible for the contractions that mix food and propel it into the duodenum.
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#121 About mixing and digestion it is false:
A wave of contraction closes the proximal antrum. Thus, as the caudad stomach contracts, food is propelled back into the stomach to be mixed (retropulsion).
If threshold is reached during the slow waves, action potentials are fired, followed by contraction. Thus, the frequency of slow waves sets the maximal frequency of contraction.
Slow waves in the caudad stomach occur at a frequency of 3–5 waves/min. They depolarize the smooth muscle cells.
The caudad region of the stomach contracts to mix the food with gastric secretions and begins the process of digestion. The size of food particles is reduced.
Gastric contractions are increased by vagal stimulation and decreased by sympathetic stimulation.
Even during fasting, contractions (the “migrating myoelectric complex”) occur at 90-minute intervals and clear the stomach of residual food. Motilin is the mediator of these contractions.
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#122 About vomiting it is false:
A wave of reverse peristalsis begins in the large intestine, moving the GI contents in the orad direction.
The gastric contents are eventually pushed into the esophagus. If the upper esophageal sphincter remains closed, retching occurs. If the pressure in the esophagus becomes high enough to open the upper esophageal sphincter, vomiting occurs.
The vomiting center in the medulla is stimulated by tickling the back of the throat, gastric distention, and vestibular stimulation (motion sickness).
The chemoreceptor trigger zone in the fourth ventricle is activated by emetics, radiation, and vestibular stimulation.
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#123 Pancreatic juice is NOT characterized by:
High volume
Virtually the same Na+ and K+ concentrations as plasma
Much higher hco3- concentration than plasma
Much higher Cl− concentration than plasma
Isotonicity
Pancreatic lipase, amylase, and proteases
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#124 About pepsin it is false:
is secreted as pepsinogen by the chief cells of the stomach.
is essential for protein digestion.
Pepsinogen is activated to pepsin by gastric H+.
The optimum ph for pepsin is between 1 and 3.
When the pH is >5, pepsin is denatured. Thus, in the intestine, as HCO3− is secreted in pancreatic fluids, duodenal pH increases and pepsin is inactivated.
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#125 About the small intestine it is false:
Bile acids emulsify lipids in the small intestine, increasing the surface area for digestion.
Pancreatic lipases hydrolyze lipids to fatty acids, monoglycerides, cholesterol, and lysolecithin. The enzymes are pancreatic lipase, cholesterol ester hydrolase, and phospholipase A2.
The hydrophobic products of lipid digestion are not solubilized in micelles by bile acids.
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#126 Malabsorption of lipids — steatorrhea cannot be caused by any of the following:
Pancreatic disease (e.g., pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis), in which the pancreas cannot synthesize adequate amounts of the enzymes (e.g., pancreatic lipase) needed for lipid digestion.
hypersecretion of gastrin, in which gastric H+ secretion is increased and the duodenal pH is decreased. Low duodenal pH inactivates pancreatic lipase.
Ileal resection, which leads to a depletion of the bile acid pool because the bile acids do not recirculate to the liver.
Bacterial overgrowth, which may lead to deconjugation of bile acids and their “early” absorption in the upper small intestine. In this case, bile acids are not present through- out the small intestine to aid in lipid absorption.
increased number of intestinal cells for lipid absorption (tropical sprue).
failure to synthesize apoprotein B, which leads to the inability to form chylomicrons.
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#127 About bilirubin production and excretion it is false:
Bilirubin is carried in the circulation bound to albumin.
Hemoglobin is degraded to bilirubin by the reticuloendothelial system.
In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid via the enzyme udP glucuronyl transferase.
A portion of conjugated bilirubin is excreted in the urine, and a portion is secreted into bile.
In the intestine, conjugated bilirubin is converted to urobilinogen, which is returned to the liver via the enterohepatic circulation, and urobilin and stercobilin, which are not excreted in feces.
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#128 About G proteins it is false:
are guanosine triphosphate (GTP)-binding proteins that couple hormone receptors to adjacent effector molecules. For example, in the cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) second messenger system, G proteins does not couple the hormone receptor to adenylate cyclase.
are used in the adenylate cyclase and inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) second messenger systems.
have intrinsic GTPase activity.
have three subunits: α, β, and γ.
The α subunit can bind either guanosine diphosphate (GDP) or GTP. When GDP is bound to the α subunit, the G protein is inactive. When GTP is bound, the G protein is active.
G proteins can be either stimulatory (Gs) or inhibitory (Gi). Stimulatory or inhibitory activ- ity resides in the α subunits, which are accordingly called αs and αi.
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#129 Pathophysiology of growth hormone:
in children causes failure to grow, short stature, mild obesity, and delayed puberty.
can be caused by lack of posterior pituitary growth hormone.
can be caused by Hypothalamic function (↓ GHRH).
can be caused by failure to generate IGF in the liver.
Growth hormone receptor deficiency.
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#130 About the hypothalamic control — corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) it is false:
When these neurons are stimulated, CRH is released into hypothalamic–hypophysial portal blood and delivered to the anterior pituitary.
CRH-containing neurons are not located in the paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
CRH binds to receptors on corticotrophs of the anterior pituitary and directs them to synthesize POmC (the precursor to ACTH) and secrete ACTH.
The second messenger for CRH is cAmP.
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#131 Which of the following is not an action of progesterone:
Has positive feedback effects on FSH and LH secretion during luteal phase.
Maintains secretory activity of the uterus during the luteal phase.
Maintains pregnancy.
Raises the uterine threshold to contractile stimuli during pregnancy.
Participates in development of the breasts.
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#132 About ovulation (day 14) it is false:
occurs 14 days before menses, regardless of cycle length. Thus, in a 28-day cycle, ovula- tion occurs on day 14; in a 35-day cycle, ovulation occurs on day 22.
A burst of estradiol synthesis at the end of the follicular phase has a negative feedback effect on the secretion of FSH and LH (lH surge).
Ovulation occurs as a result of the estrogen-induced lH surge.
Estrogen levels decrease just after ovulation (but rise again during the luteal phase).
Cervical mucus increases in quantity; it becomes less viscous and more penetrable by sperm.
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#133 About lactation it is false:
Estrogens and progesterone stimulate the growth and development of the breasts throughout pregnancy.
Prolactin levels increase steadily during pregnancy because estrogen stimulates prolac- tin secretion from the anterior pituitary.
lactation occurs during pregnancy because estrogen and progesterone block the action of prolactin on the breast.
After parturition, estrogen and progesterone levels decrease abruptly and lactation occurs.
Lactation is maintained by suckling, which stimulates both oxytocin and prolactin secretion.
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#134 Ovulation is suppressed as long as lactation continues because prolactin has not the following effects:
Inhibits hypothalamic GnRH secretion.
Inhibits the action of GnRH on the anterior pituitary and consequently inhibits LH and FSH secretion.
Antagonizes the actions of only LH and not FSH on the ovaries.
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